Let me circle back to the article I posted about yesterday concerning a man being asked to repay money allegedly overpaid in 1978. Here's a part of the article I didn't quote yesterday (emphasis added):
Byrd's father died when he was 4 years old. So his mother received social security for him while he was a minor.
"This is not money I ever saw. I was not even living at home at the time," he said.
This suggests how the overpayment occurred. His mother wasn't entitled to the child's benefits she received on him because he wasn't living with her. So how is this an overpayment to him? His mother took money from him. He was the one injured back in 1978 and you're now compounding the injury by trying to force him to repay money that was taken from him?